@ Asker: Context? 15:37 Oct 13, 2019
Taken alone lik that with no surrounding context, it doesn't; but in his ref. comment, F-X has shown us how a simialr expression makes perfect sense in another context. It seems to me that if you are in the middle of XX+1 century (say XX50), you can't meaningfully talk about an 'end'; we might talk about the late mid etc., but by definition, the 'mid' per se doesn't have an 'end'. The sticking point here would seem to be the use of 'until'... uless it was referring to the book F-X mentions, and it went on to say "...until the... was published" etc. |